Answer : The answer to this question is clearly no, since the passage (in Luke 4:18 ) records Jesus reading “Lord”, in accordance with Jewish custom from the Maccabean period onward and then states “all spoke well of him” (v22). So evidently Jesus did nothing in his reading of Isaiah to upset the synagogue. The […]
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- September, 2026
In John 16:13 Jesus says the Spirit of Truth will guide them into all truth – how then can so many Christians be wrong?
What are the 15 extra books in the Ethiopian Bible, and are they reliable?
What does God becoming “all in all” mean in relation to claims for the Trinity and Oneness doctrines?
Could inheritance come via the woman in Jewish genealogies?
Why does Luke 3:23 mention (regarded as the son of Joseph) before the genealogy of the physical descent of Jesus from Heli’s family line back to David’s son Nathan?
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