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Bible Q

Tag: Immanuel

Why do GNT1976, JPS1985, NRSV have “the young woman is with child and about to give birth to a son” in Isaiah 7:14?

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In 1976 the Good News Translation became the first major translation to depart from translating Isaiah 7:14 as “virgin”, but more importantly also in making the change from “will conceive” to “has conceived”, “is pregnant”: Isaiah 7:14 Well then, the Lord himself will give you a sign: a young woman who is pregnant will have […]

Does the New Testament apply Isaiah 9:6 to Jesus?

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Indirectly, yes. Firstly, Matthew in 1:23 has already made reference to the Isaiah 7:14 and 8:8 Hezekiah-Immanuel prophecies, so it is would not be surprising to find the third concluding part of the prophecy in Isaiah 9:6 which has the same context related to Hezekiah, as well. Secondly, in Matthew 4:16 the gospel writer quotes […]

Did Matthew realise that the original “Emmanuel” prophecy (Isaiah 7:14) refers to a child at the time of Pekah and Rezin (Isaiah 7:1, 16)?

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In some ways, from the perspective of those new to the Bible, it’s quite a reasonable question. For those in many countries the name “Emmanuel” (KJV) or “Immanuel” (ESV etc.) is used almost exclusively in the context of Christmas carols such as ‘O come, O come, Emmanuel’, and in the reading of Matthew’s account of […]

From a Jewish perspective, is Matthew’s use of the word “virgin” correct, since Isaiah doesn’t use the specific word for “virgin” but only the word for “maiden”? (Isa. 7:14; Mat. 1:23)

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Isaiah 7:14 Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign. Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel [1]. ESV footnote [1] Immanuel means God is with us Matthew 1:23 “Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and they shall call his name Immanuel” which […]