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Bible Q

Tag: Isaiah 40:3

What about language applied to God in the Old Testament but applied to Jesus in Revelation?

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What about language applied to God in the Old Testament but applied to Jesus in Revelation? This is a quite frequent question in discussions between Trinitarians and Oneness (UPCI) on one side and non-Trinitarians, including biblical unitarians (principally Christadelphians). Why would language exclusive to God in the Old Testament be applied to Jesus in the […]