Did Matthew realise that the original “Emmanuel” prophecy (Isaiah 7:14) refers to a child at the time of Pekah and Rezin (Isaiah 7:1, 16)? Answered by Bible Q · 21 March 2021 · Add Comment [Continue Reading...]
Why did the seraphim in Isaiah 6:3 call to one another rather than to God? Answered by Bible Q · 23 June 2014 · Add Comment [Continue Reading...]
Do you have an outline of the book of Isaiah? Answered by Bible Q · 24 April 2014 · Add Comment [Continue Reading...]
What does Revelation 21:1 mean when it says “the first Earth had passed away”? Answered by Bible Q · 5 October 2011 · Add Comment [Continue Reading...]
Where in the Bible does it refer to Isaiah being sawn in half while hiding in a tree? Answered by Bible Q · 31 July 2010 · Add Comment [Continue Reading...]
From a Jewish perspective, is Matthew’s use of the word “virgin” correct, since Isaiah doesn’t use the specific word for “virgin” but only the word for “maiden”? (Isa. 7:14; Mat. 1:23) Answered by Bible Q · 26 February 2010 · Add Comment [Continue Reading...]
Doesn’t the name “Immanuel” show that Jesus is God, and therefore proves the Trinity? (Isaiah 7:14, Matthew 1:23) Answered by Bible Q · 20 February 2010 · 1 Comment [Continue Reading...]
Why does Isaiah 9:6 call Jesus “Mighty God, Everlasting Father”? Answered by Bible Q · 8 August 2009 · 39 Comments [Continue Reading...]
