No. There is not a single serious scholar who has even canvassed this possibility. Not least because John repeatedly identifies himself in the Gospel, as ‘the beloved disciple’, talks about why he has written certain things and excluded others, and his objectives in writing them. Likewise also throughout the 1st Epistle of John which in […]
Recent Posts
- October, 2026
Is “Remember your creator” in Ecclesiastes 12:1 plural in Hebrew?
- September, 2026
What is the meaning of the Greek verb form egeneto?
In John 16:13 Jesus says the Spirit of Truth will guide them into all truth – how then can so many Christians be wrong?
What are the 15 extra books in the Ethiopian Bible, and are they reliable?
What does God becoming “all in all” mean in relation to claims for the Trinity and Oneness doctrines?
Categories
- Answer
- Uncategorized
- more
