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Bible Q

Tag: Trinity

God will not share his glory with another (Isaiah 42:8) but Jesus is honoured “just as” the Father (John 5:23) – isn’t the only logical conclusion that Jesus is God?

Answered by . June 27, 2014 - 4:30 am 1

I am the Lord; that is my name; my glory I give to no other, nor my praise to carved idols (Isaiah 48:8) that all may honor the Son, just as they honor the Father. Whoever does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent him (John 5:23) So the logic behind […]

Why does Jesus call the Father ʺhis Godʺ (Rev 1:6)?

Answered by . February 21, 2013 - 6:07 am

… and made us a kingdom, priests to his God and Father, to him be glory and dominion forever and ever. Amen (Rev 1:6) This is just one of a number of passage which speak of the God of Jesus: And at the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, “Eloi, Eloi, lema sabachthani?” […]

Was Jesus God before he was born to Mary?

Answered by . June 30, 2012 - 5:05 pm 3

God was not born to Mary.  Jesus was born to Mary.  Jesus is not God and never claimed to be. He himself said is “a man sent from God” (John 8:30). Jesus did not exist before his conception and birth. . Jesus reveals his Father, but is not himself God: There is a prophecy in […]

How much was Jesus man, and how much was he God?

Answered by . March 11, 2012 - 3:08 pm

Jesus is man not God. 1Ti 2:5  For there is one God, and there is one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus, For this verse to make any sense, since there is but one God, Jesus cannot be God. The idea that Jesus, the son of God, is in some way God, […]

What is the difference between “begotten” and “created”?

Answered by . October 12, 2010 - 10:01 pm

In Greek, the words “begotten” (or “born”) and “created” are expressed with two different but related words. The word translated “created” is γίνομαι or its cognates; it generally refers to things being made by a particular person. The word translated “born” is γεννάω or its cognates; it generally refers to the natural process of giving […]

In John 1:1-3, which is the correct reading: “and the Word was God” or “and the Word was a god” — and why?

Answered by . October 12, 2010 - 9:46 pm 19

The words at the end of verse 1 (και θεος ην ο λογος) are correctly translated “and the Word was God”. Because of the absence of the definite article (i.e. “the”) in the Greek, some translators (particularly JWs) believe that it should be translated “and the Word was a god”. However, in Greek the absence […]

Is Jesus inferior to God the Father? How do you understand the following verses in terms of their relationship? 1Cor 3:23; 1Cor 15:24,28; Phil 3:21.

Answered by . June 30, 2010 - 6:14 am

Jesus says “the Father is greater than I” (John 14:28). That seems pretty clear cut. The key phrase in 1 Cor 3:23 is “Christ is God’s” It expresses the idea that Christ belongs to God, in the same way that we belong to Christ. There are other verses we could turn to but the principle […]