The words at the end of verse 1 (και θεος ην ο λογος) are correctly translated “and the Word was God”. Because of the absence of the definite article (i.e. “the”) in the Greek, some translators (particularly JWs) believe that it should be translated “and the Word was a god”. However, in Greek the absence […]
Recent Posts
- February, 2026
Did the magicians in Egypt do real magic to make snakes?
What does “I am the root and the offspring of David” mean in Revelation 22:16?
- January, 2026
Who first used the term Trinity?
What is leviathan?
- December, 2025
Is Michael a name used prophetically about Jesus? And if so did Jesus exist before birth as Michael?
Categories
- Answer
- Uncategorized
- more
