Answer : The answer to this question is clearly no, since the passage (in Luke 4:18 ) records Jesus reading “Lord”, in accordance with Jewish custom from the Maccabean period onward and then states “all spoke well of him” (v22). So evidently Jesus did nothing in his reading of Isaiah to upset the synagogue. The […]
Recent Posts
- September, 2026
What does God becoming “all in all” mean in relation to claims for the Trinity and Oneness doctrines?
Could inheritance come via the woman in Jewish genealogies?
Why does Luke 3:23 mention (regarded as the son of Joseph) before the genealogy of the physical descent of Jesus from Heli’s family line back to David’s son Nathan?
- July, 2026
The Pharisee false charge that Jesus “claimed to be God” (John 10:33) refuted and dropped.
- May, 2026
Does the “1st, 2nd, 3rd,” etc. “day of the week” occur in the Bible?
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