Well, he claimed to be the son of God. Say, for example, Matthew 26:63, where he says more:
But Jesus remained silent. The high priest said to him, “I charge you under oath by the living God: Tell us if you are the Christ, the Son of God.” “Yes, it is as you say,” Jesus replied. “But I say to all of you: In the future you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Mighty One and coming on the clouds of heaven.” (Matt 26:63 NIV)
He also claims to be one with God (John 10:30), that if you had seen Jesus you had seen God (John 14:9), that he would come with power and great glory (Mark 13:26). Does any of that count as divinity? I reckon it might.
But perhaps there’s a more specific question being asked here, about God the Son instead of Son of God? I’m not sure. If it is, then Jesus didn’t claim anything like that in the Bible. But it’s kind of hard to put a list of verses for all the things that Bible doesn’t say š
Yes He claimed divinity, moreover, he claimed to be God. A quick read of the Gospel of John will clarify this, more specifically John 8:56-59 and other passages concerning His co-equality with the Father.
All Jesus claims in John 8:56-59 is (1) that Abraham knew about him and looked forward to one-day meeting him and (2) that Jesus is before Abraham in a sense. See What did Jesus mean when he said ābefore Abraham was, I amā? for a discussion of these verses.
There are no verses where Jesus claims co-equality with God. In fact, quite the reverse: John 5:19,30; 8:28; 12:49-50; 14:10; etc.
Jesus Christ (pbuh) never claimed Divinity
One may ask, if both Muslims and Christians love and respect Jesus (pbuh), where exactly is the parting of ways? The major difference between Islam and Christianity is the Christiansā insistence on the supposed divinity of Christ (pbuh). A study of the Christian scriptures reveals that Jesus (pbuh) never claimed divinity. In fact there is not a single unequivocal statement in the entire Bible where Jesus (pbuh) himself says, “I am God” or where he says, “worship me”. In fact the Bible contains statements attributed to Jesus (pbuh) in which he preached quite the contrary. The following statements in the Bible are attributed to Jesus Christ (pbuh):
(i) “My Father is greater than I.”
[The Bible, John 14:28]
(ii) “My Father is greater than all.”
[The Bible, John 10:29]
(iii) “ā¦I cast out devils by the Spirit of Godā¦.”
[The Bible, Mathew 12:28]
(iv) “ā¦I with the finger of God cast out devilsā¦.”
[The Bible, Luke 11:20]
(v) “I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgement is just; because I seek not my own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me.”
[The Bible, John 5:30]
in the begining was the word, word was with God, and the word was “god”.. Look in the original manuscript greek from which its translated to other languages about the god i put in inverted comas.. the Capital letter God and small letter god are differnet in greek.. the small letter god means godly person(messenger) its pronounced as agod in greek.
according to (v) i quoted above. any one who says i seek not my will but the will of the father(God) is a muslim.. Muslim means a person who submit his will to the oneness of God
EVERY PROPHET IN HIS TIME IS THE WAY TO GOD
Jesus (pbuh) being a prophet of God rightly said that he was the way to God. Every Prophet of God, is the truth and the way to God. Moses (pbuh) during his time and for his nation was the way, the truth and life and no man could come to God but through Moses (pbuh). Every prophet of God in his time is the ultimate path and guidance to God.
Today the last and final messenger of God is prophet Muhammad (pbuh) who is the way, the truth and the life; no man comes unto God but through his teachings.
if he is equal to God why would he say my father is greater than i? can someone help me understand the bible
The Qu’ran is in stark contrast to the true scriptures of the bible. It attests to the truth of the original scriptures and the 4 Gospels, yet, in the same breath, will contradict the scriptures referring to Jesus as a false prophet. It also calls for the killing of unbelievers and those who do not convert to Islam hundreds of times. This also is opposite of the teachings of Christ. According to Isaiah 8:20-22
Look to Godās instructions and teachings! People who contradict his word are completely in the dark. 21 They will go from one place to another, weary and hungry. And because they are hungry, they will rage and curse their king and their God. They will look up to heaven 22 and down at the earth, but wherever they look, there will be trouble and anguish and dark despair. They will be thrown out into the darkness.
Given the fact that Muhammad’s words contradict the Word of God, he is a false prophet. I do not mean to insult you, or Islam, but just to provide the rebuttal to your statement. Also, worship of Mary and Jesus as deities is not found in the bible. Those are resultant of the laws written by men who were not inspired by the Holy Spirit. Mary may be honored; however, not worshipped. Jesus is our salvation from sin and death. He is our teacher. He is the only Son of God, but he is not God.
I don’t follow your argument with Isa 8:20 – 22. Firstly, it is God speaking, not Christ. But more importantly, while it doesn’t call for the killing of unbelievers, nor does it condemn the killing of unbelievers.
Could you elaborate?
How would you interpret those given John passages in light of Philippians 2:5-11, Colossians 1:15-17, and John 1:1-5?
And there certainly are claims to co-equality with God: John 5:18, John 10:30, John 14:6-7, John 14:10-11.
Do you define co-equality to mean the same as egalitarianism? That might be the issue here. Certainly we should affirm that God the Son is not the exact same in regards to position and function as God the Father yet they are co-equal in the sense of divinity in the Godhead. This is classical trinitarian Christianity as affirmed by the Councils of Nicea and Chalcedon.
Hi Cole
Perhaps there is confusion about the definition of equality? For numbers, equals = identity, and there is only one 5. I don’t know of anyone who thinks that God and Jesus had the same identity. So I think we can agree it’s not that kind of equality. And I think we would all agree that Jesus claimed to be united in purpose with God. And I think that this is reasonable understanding of what Jesus claim to be one with God means (Matt 26:73, Rom 12:15, 1 Cor 3:8, 1 Cor 12:12 and most of all, John 17:22)
If you want “equal with God” to mean that God was his father, per John 5:18, then sure, Jesus was equal with God. Perhaps in another post, I’ll discuss John 1, which is widely misunderstood, and I have only recently come to learn how to understand it. I’ll come back and comment on Philippians 2 later.
Actually, Steven and I discussed Phil 2 and he did a post about it: https://bibleq.net/answer/1350/
What it means by “before Abraham was i am” means inshallah, that before Abraham was manifest in the flesh Jesus spirit was already created. Allah created everybodys spirits before he created Adam in flesh. So before Abraham was manifest, Jesus spirit was. But that does in no way mean Jesus was living, or that any human was living, Just their souls or spirits existed. May Allah forgive me for any mistakes i have made, inshallah this is the answer
Hi Dawud
You answer is definitely not a Bible answer, which is what this site is for. Nor can I think of any biblical passages that could be used to support the idea that God created all the spirits before creating Adam, though he does see the future.
btw, Even were I to believe in the Koran (I don’t), I don’t see how the existence of an unliving soul would justify the use of “I am” like that.
Just a few thoughts for those who think the trinity is confirmed in the Bible.
Firstly:
What was the point of ‘Christ being led into the wilderness to be tempted’? What would failure or success indicate?
Secondly:
“15 Ye judge after the flesh; I judge no man.
16 And yet if I judge, my judgment is true: for I am not alone, but I and the Father that sent me.
17 It is also written in your law, that the testimony of TWO men is true.
18 I am one that BEAR WITNESS of myself, and the Father that sent me BEARETH WITNESS of me.
19 Then said they unto him, Where is thy Father? Jesus answered, Ye neither know me, nor my Father: if ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also”
(Joh 8:15-19 KJV)
Jesus was citing:
“15 One witness shall not rise up against a man for any iniquity, or for any sin, in any sin that he sinneth: at the mouth of TWO witnesses, or at the mouth of three witnesses, shall the matter be established.” (Deu 19:15 KJV)
The Pharisee’s claimed Christ had no independent witness to confirm his claim to ‘being the light of the world’.
Yet Christ states that if he needed to he could claim on his Father as his second independent witness. This was what was required under the Law and Jesus could rely on this caveat as well.
The witness’s were only accepted if they were independent and true. This is just further proof of Christās independence from the Father both in Mind and Body. Christ pleases his Father because he chooses to, not because he IS his Father.
Just a few more thoughts to ponder.
“And [beware the Day] when God will say, “O Jesus, Son of Mary, did you say to the people, ‘Take me and my mother as deities besides God?'” He will say, ‘Exalted are You! It was not for me to say that to which I have no right. If I had said it, You would have known it. You know what is within myself, and I do not know what is within Yourself. Indeed, it is You who is Knower of the unseen.'” (Quran 5:116)
“I said not to them except what You commanded me – to worship God, my Lord and your Lord. And I was a witness over them as long as I was among them; but when You took me up, You were the Observer over them, and You are, over all things, Witness.”(Quran 5:117)
It’s actually an insult to God to say that He has a son or can be compared to anything in the physical world which He created.
He’s Sublime.
He’s WAY above that.
#Haneen. This is a Bible site, and must answer about what the Bible says. The Quran is out of scope, though see posts here. I am personally confused about the Quran here. While Muhammad (pbuh) says that you must believe in the Bible and the gospels, that they are the inspired word of God – and that you cannot pick and choose between them, he then picks and chooses between them by disagreeing with the central tenant of the entire Bible (that Jesus is the Son of God). I am aware of the argument that the modern Bible has been corrupted, but it’s clear that this kind of corruption did not happen after the Quran was written. (p.s. what’s my confusion – how can this have authority?)
tell them “I am” sent you – Jehova to Moses
Later Christ states “I am that I Am”
Christ is the Old Testament Jehovah, the Creator of Heaven and Earth, and later, the Son of God, born of Mary, who, through His divine lineage was able to overcome sin and death for all mankind through the Atonement.
Jesus Himself claimed equality with God. He identified Himself as the “I AM” (Joh 8:58), the God of the Old Testament.
He called God “My Father” instead of “our Father” (Joh 20:17).
And His statement “I and My Father are one” ( Joh 10:30) sets forth the claim that He was of “one substance” with the Father, “possessing the same attributes.”
While it is certainly true that all of these verses are in the Bible, there is a lot of interpretation in your comment as to what these verses actually mean.
For John 8:58, it certainly does not clearly and unambiguously identify Jesus as the “I AM” of the Old Testament. See https://bibleq.net/answer/447/ for more comments on the interpretation of this passage.
For John 20:17, there is no doubt that Jesus was the Son of God. With that in mind, calling God “My Father” rather than “our Father” was perfectly natural (whereas we are only children of God through adoption through the work of Jesus Christ, and we have to work together, making God “our Father”). However, that doesn’t say that they are equal (I am most certainly not equal with my father).
For John 10:30, it definitely says that Jesus and his Father are one. The question then becomes “In what way are they one?” You assume that it means he was of “one substance” with God, “possessing the same attributes”. However, I doubt that this is what Jesus is talking about because in John 17 he asks God that all his followers will be one in the same way, and I don’t think we are of “one substance” with the Father.
I would suggest that what he was saying is that he was one in purpose with God: they had the same goal, and they worked together. In the John 10 passage he was talking about working with his Father and doing works in his Father’s name before he said that they were one. In John 5:19 – 20, Jesus explains why they have the same goals and actions: because he is watching the Father, and doing what he sees the Father do, so it is a conscious choice, not just a side effect of being exactly the same as the Father. In the same way, Jesus wanted all of his followers to have the same goal as he had and as his father had, and to work together with them to achieve the goal.
“i ascend unto my father and Your father, and to my God and your” (john 20:17)
Jesus is not God
Jesus said “Why do You call me good? None is good but one which is God” (mark 10:18) jesus added, “but of that day and that hour, no one knows it, neither the Angels, nor the son, but only father knows” (mark 13:32)
Jesus is the Son of God not God. And Jesus is not the holy spirit or else why does the Holy spirit come when Jesus ascends to heaven to be seated at the right hand of His Father?
Interesting to note they where going to stone him after Jesus said “before Abraham was, I am” Hense the people thought he was saying he was God. Weather he ment it that way or not the people that heard it thought he ment he was God
Genisis 1:26 says “Then God said let us make man in our image, according to our likeness.” Who was he talking to when he said OUR image? God was talking to his son and the Holy Spirit who already was. There is something in the Bible called the Godhead (Romans 1:20). To my understanding the Godhead is made up of three seperate beings but all of the same spirit. There is the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit. Think of this like the United states government. We have one government but three seperate branches with three different functions. There is only one Godhead but there are three seperate parts to this. As for Jesus Christ claiming divinity in the Bible. Matthew 3:17, Mark 1:11, Luke 3:22 all say “a voice came from Heaven which said ” This is my Son; in you I am well pleased.” This is after John the Baptist baptized Jesus in the Jordan River and at this point God the Father proclaimed Jesus’ divinity. In Mark 14:62 Jesus proclaims to be the son of God when asked the question “Are you the son of the blessed God and he said “I AM”. I hope this helps answer your question.
This is merely speculation and contradicts other Bible passages. See https://bibleq.net/answer/94/, https://bibleq.net/answer/1817/ and https://bibleq.net/answer/447/.
Ā Revelation 1:7 Ā Behold, he cometh with clouds; and every eye shall see him, and they also which pierced him: and all kindreds of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen. Ā Ā Revelation 1:8 Ā I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.
Jesus claimed to be the Almighty.
Revelation 1:8 (ESV) 8 āI am the Alpha and the Omega,ā says the Lord God, āwho is and who was
and who is to come, the Almighty.ā
Even in your version I would expect “the Lord” to be God.Ā The ESV makes it clear that it is God, and thus that it was not Jesus claiming to be the almighty (and it’s not just the ESV: compare NIV, NASB, NLT, NET, NRSV, etc.).
John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. John 1:14 “And the Word was made flesh and dwelt among us…”
Ā Ā 1 John 5:7 Ā For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. Clear as crystal.
On John 1:1, seeĀ
https://bibleq.net/answer/463/. Yes, Jesus is God’s word made flesh. But that doesn’t mean John 1:1 is referring to Jesus. God’s word is revealed in other ways too.
On 1 John 5:7, seeĀ http://bible.org/article/textual-problem-1-john-57-8. It is a well-known textual corruption. Almost all English translations other than the KJV and NKJV omit the Trinitarian statement.
If Jesus never claimed to be God(divine) then he was not qualified to be the Messiah the old testament prophets prophesied about.The prophets said he would be divine and the list is endless.The jews never believde Moses right from outside so don’t do the mistake of interpreting the old testament view of the messiah by saying “where the Jews expecting a divine messiah?”.They hated God from day one,the scripture is clear that only a remnant(handful as opposed to majority) have follwed and believed God’s word throughout te generation of the Hebrew right from Mount Sinai.
John 5:46 “If you really believed Moses, you would believe me, because he wrote about me.”,here a thousand years after Moses ,Jesus was telling the Jews THEY NEVER BELIEVED MOSES.
Okay,let’s see what Moses himself said
Deuteronomy 31:26-27 ”
26 Take this book of the law, and put it in the side of the ark of the covenant of the Lord your God, that it may be there for a witness against thee.
27 For
I know thy rebellion, and thy stiff neck: behold, while I am yet alive
with you this day, ye have been rebellious against the Lord; and how much more after my death?”
Now that was Moses himself confirming that the Hebrew never believed him inspite of all the miracles they witnessed through Moses.
I am laying this background first because i am going to delve into the old testament to prove that the Messiah,the Saviour of Isreal was prohesied by the prophets to be divine.
First place is Micah 5:2
” But
thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, though thou be little among the thousands of
Judah, yet out of thee shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler
in Israel; whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting.”
God nips every error in the bud.There were two Bethlehems in Israel one up north and the most insignificant down south.The one south was Bethlehem Ephratah where David was born.The prophet Micah said that out of this small town will come a ruler in isreal.In other words he will be born in the town.But his goings forth(origin) was from old,from EVERLASTING.Well,Bethlehem could not have been a town from everlasting coz even the earth had a beginning,so if the this ruler to be born in the town was from everlasting that unequivocally tells you he is God.Now some skeptics have tried to deny that word everlasting and they unashamedly say it is from Ancient times.Well the Hebrew word used by Micah was “olam”. Olam in the bible always mean everlasting so why use a different rule when it comes to Micah 5:2.
It gets even more interesting in the next verse
“Therefore will he give them
up, until the time that she which travaileth hath brought forth: then
the remnant of his brethren shall return unto the children of Israel.”
Who will give them up? Well in the context of the preceding verse,the ruler that will be born in Bethlehem will give them up.Jesus emphatically said to Jerusalem,”Your house is left to you desolate until you say Blessed is he that comes in the name of Adonai”
Well that’s prohecy exactly fulfilled.He will give them up until they pass through fire again and again and again until they scream out to him for help.Again only remnant shall be saved of Israel.Why would the ruler born in Bethlehem give them up if they accepted him? The context there tells you something happened from his birth to the time he gives up on them.Let history judge.
If you are sincere and leave your bias and open your heart to God’s word.You will agree with Micah that he(ruler born in Bethlehem) will GIVE THEM UP.The context of that passage and the following verses tells you the subject is:the RULER THAT WAS BORN/WILL BE BORN IN BETHLEHEM
Isaiah 9:6-7
”
6 For
unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government
shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful,
Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.
7 Of
the increase of his government and peace there shall be no end, upon
the throne of David, and upon his kingdom, to order it, and to establish
it with judgment and with justice from henceforth even for ever. The
zeal of the Lord of hosts will perform this.”
And his name shall be called…..
This is a way of telling us the identity of the child to be born.Isaiah did not say and his NAMES shall be called.No it is singular,NAME.Therefore God was talking through isaiah that this child’s name is not ordinary.I have heard people say it’s just a tilte.Can someone tell me one name that simultaneously mean wonderful,counsellor,everlasting father,mighty God,prince of Peace? We misunderstand what Isaih meant by NAME.It’s not about what the parents will call him at birth for eg a baby can be baned John or mary.No it’s not about that name.The word name in this context points to his attributes and his nature because the singular word name(shem in hebrew).
For example if i say,”Your name is popular and marketable”,it doesn’t mean literally that ure called popular or marketable,or that u have titles called popular or marketable but it means that whatever your name is,that everyone knows you and that your name sells.Now that is your attribute.I am saying that your name is popular and marketable means that a third party overhearing what am saying abt you will straight-forward understand that you are popular.Hence when Isaiah says his shem(name) shall be called “Wonderful counselor,mighty God,prince of peace,father of eternity.”He is revealing his person and attribute to the reader.Why do i believe that,?
The next verse tells you he will sit on the throne of David and rule for everlasting,his kingdom and reign will NEVER END.Now you will agree with me that he will have to be God to rule forever.I mean if you remove your bias and apply simple logic you will agree that whoever this is,some say the prophecy was fulfilled in Isaiah’s day.Wow whoever he was he must have died now so he cannot sit on the throne forever.And whoever he was,he must have been born in Bethlehem as Micah said,
Daniel 7:13-14
”
13 I
saw in the night visions, and, behold, one like the Son of man came
with the clouds of heaven, and came to the Ancient of days, and they
brought him near before him.
14 And
there was given him dominion, and glory, and a kingdom, that all
people, nations, and languages, should serve him: his dominion is an
everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away, and his kingdom that
which shall not be destroyed.”
Again whoever this person that rode on the clouds of heaven was,he had to be God to ride in the Shekinah glory of God.If you are a reader of the bible,you will agree with me that angels never showed up in clouds.The cloud is always a trademark of God’s presence throughout his encounter with Moses.That was why when the high priest asked jesus if he was the messiah,the son of God.Jesus said yes.And you will see me sitting in the right of hand of God and coming in the clouds of heaven”
Jesus was telling him,if indeed i am the Messiah,i also have to be God.he was staying true to the prophets and te old testatment about the identity of the messiah.In that answer jesus also identified himself with the prohpecy of david in psalms 110
“The Lord said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.”
I don’t remember any prophet who claimed he will be sitting at God’s right hand not even Moses.God’s right hand means sitting at the most exalted place of authority there is.
Verse 5 goes on to say
” The LORD at thy right hand shall strike through kings in the day of his wrath.”
The person at God’s right hand is called LORD(Adonai not Adoni)
In the bible, ADONAI is exclusively used for God and Adoni for non-divine masters.
So Jesus was claiming in that succinct answer to Caiaphas that he was God which explains why the high priest said he was blaspheming and hence the penalty for blasphemy in mosaic law was death,he was crucified.
In another encounter,in Matthew 22:41-42
”
41 While the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them,
42 Saying, What think ye of Messiah? whose son is he? They say unto him, The son of David.
43 He saith unto them, How then doth David in spirit call him Lord, saying,
44 The Lord said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool?
45 If David then call him Lord, how is he his son?
46 And no man was able to answer him a word, neither durst any man from that day forth ask him any more questions.”
Now look at the classic Jews with there unbelief.
Jesus in effect was telling them how could David call his son(the future messiah) Lord if he was his son.How could his literal son sit at God’s right hand.Hahaha
If David then call him Lord how can he be his Son said Jesus.
Jesus was right there telling the Jews that even David himself acknowledged by the Spirit that his distant son and messiah to whom his throne was promised to forever was to be divine and was greater than himself.He could not be really be his SON because he called him ADONAI.
Verse 46 says no man asked him any questions why?
Because he has been locked in scuffles with them coz severally he claimed divine rights and now that he has publicly acclaimed himself as the messiah in Jerusalem after the triumphal entry,he now answers the Jews using the bible,that the messiah they were expecting was to be DIVINE and not just a mere literal son of david.Jesus was simply implying that the person David was refering to in Psalms 110 could not be his literal son,he had to be divine.