In the context, Paul had been talking about all of the groups of people who had seen Jesus after he was resurrected (1 Corinthians 15:3-7). These all seem to have been in the 40 days after Jesus was raised before he was taken into heaven. However, Paul knew that Jesus had only appeared to him long after that time, while he was in the process of persecuting Jesus’ followers. So I think all Paul means is that the time of Jesus appearing to him was out of place, since it was a much later time than when everyone else had seen Jesus. It was also a very surprising and unexpected appearance, very much like an unexpected birth (NET). I think he thought it would have been much better if Jesus had appeared to him along with all the others before he went up into heaven, so that he would not have persecuted the church of God.
Recent Posts
- September, 2026
In John 16:13 Jesus says the Spirit of Truth will guide them into all truth – how then can so many Christians be wrong?
What are the 15 extra books in the Ethiopian Bible, and are they reliable?
What does God becoming “all in all” mean in relation to claims for the Trinity and Oneness doctrines?
Could inheritance come via the woman in Jewish genealogies?
Why does Luke 3:23 mention (regarded as the son of Joseph) before the genealogy of the physical descent of Jesus from Heli’s family line back to David’s son Nathan?
Categories
- Answer
- Uncategorized
- more

No Comments yet!