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Bible Q

What does John’s test for antichrist “come in the flesh” mean? (1 John 4:2-3, 2 John 1:7)

John’s test is as follows. The text in verse 2 “come in the flesh” is not repeated in verse 3 in modern versions, but is repeated in the Majority Text manuscripts, followed by KJV in verse 3 also:

1 John 4:2 By this you know the Spirit of God: every spirit that confesses that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God, 3 and every spirit that does not confess Jesus [                ] is not from God. And this is the spirit of the antichrist, of which you have heard that it is coming; and now it is already in the world. (1 John4:2-3 NRSV following minority text)

1 John 4:3 And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is not of God: and this is that spirit of antichrist, whereof ye have heard that it should come; and even now already is it in the world.(KJV following majority text)

And then also in the second letter:

2 John 1:7 For many deceivers are entered into the world, who confess not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh. This is a deceiver and an antichrist. (KV)
2 John 1:7 Many deceivers have gone out into the world, those who do not confess that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh; any such person is the deceiver and the antichrist!

The first thing we note is that the term ‘flesh’ (Greek sarx) is used rather than ‘body’ (Greek soma). Evidently anyone who taught anything related to Jesus of Nazareth would admit that Christ had a physical body. The similar point can be made with Paul’s warning about accepting teachers who teacher “another Jesus” in 2 Corinthians 11:4. Every teacher coming to a first century Christian church and teaching Jesus of Nazareth would admit the basic facts of the historical life of Jesus of Nazareth. So we are – at least with 1 John 4:2-3 – looking for something related to the nature and identity of Jesus.

The word ‘flesh’ in the New Testament has a broader meaning that physical flesh and is more often used to refer to what in modern languages we would probably call ‘human nature’. Indeed some modern Bible translations in many languages do paraphrase some of the mentions of ‘flesh’ in the New Testament as ‘human nature’. Uses of the Greek word ‘flesh’ to mean physical muscle do occur in the New Testament – such as Luke 23:49 – but they are relatively infrequent and obvious from context. The metaphorical use of the word for ‘human nature’ is more common. But again, depending on context.

Since the letter 1 John is closely related to the Gospel John we can go back to the first mention of Christ coming in the flesh in John 1:14:

John 1:14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth. (KJV)

John 1:14 And the Word became flesh and lived among us, and we have seen his glory, the glory as of a father’s only son, full of grace and truth (NRSV)

 

It is worth remembering when reading John 1:1 to John 1:14 that there is no distinction in Greek between the word as a common noun [it] and the Word as a personification or a personal title [he]. As also there is no capitalization in Greek. The it/he decision, and the decision on when to capitalize the word/Word are decisions forced by the requirements of many modern languages in translation. This is important because the Greek does not require that the word in John 1:1 to 1:14 be read as a person. In the original text of John 1:1 to John 1:14 ‘word’ is the same common noun word (Greek logos) in Greek Old Testament passages, like for example Psalm 33:6 LXX. There is no suggestion that the word, Logos, in Psalm 33:6 is anything more than a word.

6 By the word (Greek logos) of the LORD were the heavens made, and all the host of them by the breath of his mouth. (Psalm 33:6 Septuagint)

However, many Christians who, no matter how sincerely but mistakenly, understand Jesus as having preexisted before birth will, naturally incline to reading John 1:14 as “the preexistent being Jesus entered a body”. Which it needs to be said, is not what John 1:14 says or means. Likewise John’s antichrist test in 1 John 4:2-3 is not a test to accept that Jesus had a body.

We can see how the New Testament speaks of Christ’s flesh in the sense of human nature in verses including:

 

Ephesians 2:15 Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace; (KJV)

Hebrews 5:7 Who in the days of his flesh, when he had offered up prayers and supplications with strong crying and tears unto him that was able to save him from death, and was heard in that he feared; (KJV)

Hebrews 10:20 By a new and living way, which he hath consecrated for us, through the veil, that is to say, his flesh; ( KJV)

 

From these we should take John’s antichrist test as relating to anyone teaching that Jesus did not have the same nature as his brothers.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

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