This question probably has its origin the following verse from Zephaniah: “For then will I turn to the people a pure language, that they may all call upon the name of the LORD, to serve him with one consent. (Zephaniah 3:9 KJV) The context of this verse, although dated during the reign of Josiah (640-610 […]
Recent Posts
- December, 2024
What are the “evil angels” in Psalm 78:49 KJV?
Can the term “in the name of” in Matthew 28:19 have multiple referents?
- November, 2024
Who is the “man of sin” and “son of perdition” in 2 Thessalonians 2:3?
Sodom and Gomorrha, “strange flesh” and “eternal fire” (Jude 1:7)
- October, 2024
Did Jesus break the Law of Moses about the Sabbath? Or just the Pharisee interpretations of the Law?
Categories
- Answer
- Uncategorized
- more