This is not something that is explicitly stated in the gospels, but many have made this link. An excellent summary of the argument is given by Harry Whittaker in his book Studies in the Gospels. The relevant essay can be found online here.
Recent Posts
- December, 2024
What are the “evil angels” in Psalm 78:49 KJV?
Can the term “in the name of” in Matthew 28:19 have multiple referents?
- November, 2024
Who is the “man of sin” and “son of perdition” in 2 Thessalonians 2:3?
Sodom and Gomorrha, “strange flesh” and “eternal fire” (Jude 1:7)
- October, 2024
Did Jesus break the Law of Moses about the Sabbath? Or just the Pharisee interpretations of the Law?
Categories
- Answer
- Uncategorized
- more
No Comments yet!